Has Japan killed more foreign civilians in WWII than any other country in history ?

**deadhippo** · May 9, 2005, 08:38

probably a large percentage of those deaths were indirect casualties
ie they died from desease

**Shooter452** · May 9, 2005, 11:19

Originally Posted by deadhippo

probably a large percentage of those deaths were indirect casualties
ie they died from desease

True, quite possibly, but so were the civilian deaths in China during the Second World War.

That the disease casualties in China might have been the result of deliberate infections via Japanese biological warfare efforts or not is in debate. With low calorie diets, poor sanitation, constant upheaval as causes, it is also possible that these epidemics were naturally caused--however unlikely.

Arab chroniclers were unamimous: the Mongols slew all--men, women, children, all...without mercy and without regard. Again, I admit that there is reason to hold their figures at arm's length, but it is difficult to totally discount them.